Philippians 3:12 Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after… I. THE SENSE IN WHICH CHRISTIANS ARE NOT PERFECT. They are not so perfect as to be free — 1. From ignorance: they may know many things material and spiritual, but they do not know the Almighty unto perfection nor many of His ways. 2. From mistake. They do not mistake things essential to salvation; but in non-essentials they err and frequently: in regard, e.g., to facts and their circumstances, and the character of men, and the interpretation of Scripture. 3. From infirmities. They are free indeed from what the worldly calls his infirmity — drunkenness, etc.— but not from weakness or slowness of understanding, and the infirmities of speech and behaviour which spring there from. 4. From temptation, since Christ was tempted. 5. Now are they absolutely perfect. How much soever a man has attained he must yet "grow in grace." II. THE SENSE IN WHICH CHRISTIANS ARE PERFECT. 1. They are free from outward sin. (1 John 3:8-9, 18; Romans 6:1-2, 5-7, 11, 14-18; 1 Peter 4:1-2). It is not said, "He sinneth not wilfully, habitually, as other men, or as he did before." Objection(1) But did not Abraham, Moses, and David commit sin. Yes, but it does not follow that Christians must. Those who argue so seem never to have considered Matthew 11:11. We cannot measure the privileges of Christians by those formerly given to the Jews. Objection(2) But are there not assertions which prove the same thing? (1 Kings 8:46; 2 Chronicles 6:36; Ecclesiastes 7:20). Answer: From the day that sin entered the world there was not a just man that sinned not until the Son of God was manifested to take away our sins. "The heir as long as he is a child differeth nothing from a servant." Holy men of old were, during the infant state of the Church, in bondage under the elements of the world. But when the fulness of the times was come, etc. Now therefore we are no more servants but sons. So that whatsoever was the case of those under the law, since the gospel was given "he that is born of God sinneth not." It is of great importance to observe the difference between the two dispensations (John 7:28). That this great salvation from sin was not given till Jesus was glorified, St. Peter plainly testifies (1 Peter 1:9-10). Objection(3) But did not the apostles sin — St. Paul by his contention, St. Peter by his dissimulation? Yes, but how does that prove that Christians must commit sin. No necessity of sinning was laid upon them. The grace of God was sufficient for them, and it is surely sufficient for us. No man is tempted above that he is able to bear, and with the temptation there is a way of escape. Objection(4) But does not James contradict this (ver. 2). No; he does not refer to himself or Christians (see vers. 9 and 1), where "we" is general or exclusive of Christians. Objection(5) How shall we reconcile St. John with himself? (1 John 1:8, 10). Observe (a) verse 10 fixes the sense of verse 8. (b) The point under consideration is not whether we have or have not sinned heretofore; and neither of these verses asserts that we do sin, or commit it now. (c) Verse 9 explains both verses 10 and 8.We are cleansed from all unrighteousness that we may go and sin no more. St. John is well consistent with himself as well as with the other holy writers. He declares — (a) "The blood of Jesus Christ cleanseth from all sin." (b) No man can say I have not sinned, have no sin to be cleansed from. (c) But God is ready to save us from past and future sins. (d) "These things write," etc. (1 John 2:1-2). (e) But lest there should be any doubt on a subject of such vast importance the apostle resumes the subject in Chap. 3, where he carefully explains his own meaning (vers. Philippians 3:7-10). 2. They are free from evil thoughts. But thoughts concerning evil are not always evil thoughts. Our Lord doubtless thought of the things spoken by the devil yet He had no sinful thought. And even thence it follows, neither have Christians (Luke 6:40). And indeed whence should evil thoughts proceed in the servant who is as His Master (Mark 7:21, cf. Matthew 12:33; Matthew 7:17-18). The same happy privilege St. Paul asserts from his own experience (2 Corinthians 10:4, etc). 3. From evil tempers. This is evident again from the declaration, "Everyone that is perfect shall be as His Master." Christ had just been delivering some of the sublimest doctrines of Christianity, and some most grievous to flesh and blood — "Love your enemies," etc. What other than this can St. Paul mean by "I am crucified with Christ," etc. If 1 John 3:3 be true, then the Christian — (1) Is purified from pride, for Christ was lowly of heart; (2) from self-will or desire, for Christ desired to do only the will of the Father; (3) from anger in the common sense of the word, for Christ was gentle and long-suffering. Conclusion: Thus doth Christ save His people from their sins. "We shall be saved" say some, "but not till death." How is this to be reconciled with 1 John 1:5; 1 John 4:17) See 2 Corinthians 7:1. (John Wesley, M. A.) Parallel Verses KJV: Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus. |
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