Why does Acts 12:4 use the term "Easter" instead of "Passover" in some translations? Canonical Greek Term in Acts 12:4 The unanimous Greek manuscript tradition reads τὸ πάσχα (to pascha, “the Passover”) in Acts 12:4. No extant Greek copy, papyrus, minuscule, uncial, or lectionary offers an alternative reading. Text-critically, the word “Passover” is certain. English Renderings Before and After the King James Version • Wycliffe (1382): “pask”. • Tyndale (1526): “ester”. • Coverdale (1535), Great Bible (1539), Bishops’ Bible (1568): “ester”. • Geneva (1560): “easter”. • King James Version (1611): “Easter” (only here; elsewhere “Passover”). In 16th-century English, “Easter” could denote either (1) the Jewish Passover or (2) the Christian celebration of Christ’s resurrection. Tyndale consciously used “ester” to translate both Old‐ and New Testament πάσχα. Only later did “Easter” narrow semantically to the resurrection feast, while “Passover” was standardized for the Jewish observance. Contextual Chronology inside Acts 12:3–4 “Now it was during the days of Unleavened Bread. After arresting him, he put him in prison… intending after the Passover to bring him before the people.” Luke marks three successive calendrical markers: 1. Days of Unleavened Bread (15-21 Nisan). 2. Passover (14 Nisan, often synecdochically for the entire week). 3. A civil trial after the feast when crowds disperse (cf. Matthew 26:5). Herod’s delay mirrors Jewish scruple against executions during holy days (Mark 14:1-2). Therefore “Passover” is the precise sense. Why the KJV Retained “Easter” Once and “Passover” 28 Times Elsewhere The Translators’ Notes (Bodleian MS. Bodl. 1602) show marginal entries debating wording. At Acts 12:4 they considered the immediate context—the resurrection season had already occurred that year (Acts 12 is A.D. 44, weeks after the crucifixion anniversary). Some believed Herod’s postponement stretched beyond the Jewish feast to the Gentile‐recognized Christian festival, hence “Easter.” Others simply followed earlier English tradition. The choice was linguistic, not textual. Addressing the Charge of “Translation Error” 1. All authoritative Greek texts say “Passover,” anchoring the verse. 2. Early modern English used “Easter” as an acceptable synonym. 3. No doctrine of Christ, salvation, or creation hinges on the English rendering. Therefore the KJV is not “wrong” in a historic-linguistic sense, and newer translations are not “correcting Scripture” but clarifying for present readers. Theological Continuity between Passover and Resurrection Passover typifies Christ (1 Corinthians 5:7, John 1:29). The lamb slain at twilight and the deliverance from Egypt prefigure the Lamb of God and deliverance from sin. Acts 12 situates apostolic persecution against the backdrop of Israel’s redemption festival, implicitly asserting that Jesus is the fulfillment of Exodus imagery. Whether one says “Passover” or “Easter,” Luke’s intent is to show the seamless progression of God’s redemptive calendar. Pastoral and Apologetic Takeaways • Scripture’s original wording is secure; translation history merely reflects living language. • Accusations that “the Bible contradicts itself” at Acts 12:4 evaporate under manuscript evidence. • The episode invites proclamation of Christ as our Paschal Lamb—slain, resurrected, and ruling, validating both Old Testament prophecy and New Testament history. Concise Answer Acts 12:4 in some older English Bibles says “Easter” because 16th- and 17th-century English used “Easter” as a common equivalent for the Greek πάσχα, meaning Passover. All Greek manuscripts read “Passover,” and modern translations follow that usage to avoid contemporary confusion. The difference is linguistic, not textual or doctrinal. |
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