Hebrews 7:11
Now if perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood (upon which basis the people received the Law), why was there still need for another priest to appear--one in the order of Melchizedek and not in the order of Aaron?
Treasury of Scripture Knowledge

perfection.

Hebrews 7:18, 19
So the former commandment is set aside because it was weak and useless . . .

Hebrews 8:7, 10-13
For if that first covenant had been without fault, no place would have been sought for a second. . . .

Hebrews 10:1-4
The Law is only a shadow of the good things to come, not the realities themselves. It can never, by the same sacrifices offered year after year, make perfect those who draw near to worship. . . .

Galatians 2:21
I do not set aside the grace of God. For if righteousness comes through the Law, Christ died for nothing."

Galatians 4:3, 9
So also, when we were children, we were enslaved under the basic principles of the world. . . .

Colossians 2:10-17
And you have been made complete in Christ, who is the head over every ruler and authority. . . .

what.

Hebrews 7:26-28
Such a high priest truly befits us--One who is holy, innocent, undefiled, set apart from sinners, and exalted above the heavens. . . .

another.

Hebrews 7:15, 17, 21
And this point is even more clear if another priest like Melchizedek appears, . . .

See on ch.

Hebrews 5:6, 10
And in another passage God says: "You are a priest forever in the order of Melchizedek." . . .

Hebrews 6:20
where Jesus our forerunner has entered on our behalf. He has become a high priest forever in the order of Melchizedek.

Parallel Verses
New American Standard Bible
Now if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the Law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be designated according to the order of Aaron?

King James Bible
If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

Holman Christian Standard Bible
If then, perfection came through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need was there for another priest to appear, said to be in the order of Melchizedek and not in the order of Aaron?

International Standard Version
Now if perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood—for on this basis the people received the Law—what further need would there be to speak of appointing another kind of priest according to the order of Melchizedek, not one according to the order of Aaron?

NET Bible
So if perfection had in fact been possible through the Levitical priesthood--for on that basis the people received the law--what further need would there have been for another priest to arise, said to be in the order of Melchizedek and not in Aaron's order?

Aramaic Bible in Plain English
If perfection therefore is by Priesthood of Levi, ( for by it The Written Law was established to the people ), why was another Priest needed to arise in the image of Melchizedek? But does it say that he would be in the image of Aaron?
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